### Algebra Freakout

Nov. 9th, 2005 12:16 amblah blah blah = 1/(1-(n/m)^(k-1)) * ((m/n) - 1) * p/(x^(k-1)) = 1/((n/m) + (n/m)^2 + ... + (n/m)^(k-1)) * p/(x^(k-1))

What? Why? What happened? You can't just put an equals sign there, where'd the (m/n-1) go? What happened to the denominator? Will no one think of the children? WHY GOD WHY?!?!?!

If anyone can resolve this little freakout, please to be letting me know. Because I feel like the dumbest stupidhead in Less-Than-Ideal-IntelligenceTown right now, and I still have squaring an infinite series to worry about and I don't know what I'm doing and what the hell am I doing in these classes? How

*do*you deal with squaring an infinite series? And why am I being asked to logically analyze a dumb joke about Cogito Ergo Sum?

(Also, I don't think I ever learned how to deal with infinite series. What class should that have been again?)

(HI!)